I saw a deep analysis of a similar question on a soccer site a few years back “why do Manchester United get all the calls/non-calls?”
The answer similar to the above was “they don’t”, but the analysis did find that home field advantage essentially boils down to officials’ bias as crowd reactions influence decisions.
I saw a deep analysis of a similar question on a soccer site a few years back “why do Manchester United get all the calls/non-calls?”
The answer similar to the above was “they don’t”, but the analysis did find that home field advantage essentially boils down to officials’ bias as crowd reactions influence decisions.
This could be analysed for NFL but it’s a very big piece of work I’m not volunteering to do.
I saw a deep analysis of a similar question on a soccer site a few years back “why do Manchester United get all the calls/non-calls?”
The answer similar to the above was “they don’t”, but the analysis did find that home field advantage essentially boils down to officials’ bias as crowd reactions influence decisions.
This could be analysed for NFL but it’s a very big piece of work I’m not volunteering to do.
I thought the question was, why does Manchester United get whatever stoppage time they need at Old Trafford? 😄